How and why would Matthew have edited Mark 9:2-10 contrasted with Matthew 17:1-13?
Part 1 (a) Must be between 100-200 words and use websites that are based in the United States for references
Why do you think Jesus in John’s Gospel is not baptized by John the Baptist as he is in Mark’s Gospel, but instead is presented as an executive in charge of baptizing (Jn. 1:32-34; 3:22-23; 4:1-3)?
The Gospel of John makes reference is a different way as it does in Mark’s gospel. Identifies only as John, and does not attach his identity as “the baptist” with his person. Only in a very unique way do we hear about the baptism of John in his words: “I baptize with water” (1:26), and in reference to Jesus, John responds, “I myself did not know him, but I came baptizing with water for this reason that he might be revealed to Israel” (1:31).
John bears witness to the baptism event in this way: “I saw the Spirit descending from heaven like a dove, and it remained on him. I myself did not know him but the one who sent to baptize with water said to me, ‘He on whom you see the Spirit descend and remain is the one who baptizes with the Holy Spirit.’ And I myself have seen and have testified that this is the Son of God” (1:32-34).
John’s gospel does not have Jesus baptized but he is outperforming John the Baptist and is kind of executive over the baptizing enterprise, as a matter of fact it shows Jesus as an authority rather than someone that is in agony or suffering.
Reference:
Imperato, Robert. Portraits of Jesus: A Reading Guide. Third, Hamilton Books, 2020. Page 57.
