Q | Accounting homework help

 
Think of a time when you were involved in strategic decision making. This could be a business situation or a personal situation.  It could be anything from purchasing inputs for a manufacturing firm to trying to divide up household chores.  Strategy is huge in sports – Should we punt or go for it on 4th?
Discuss your dominant strategy for the situation.

What was the other person’s dominant strategy?
What was your unique solution?
Were you happy with the outcome?
If someone was unhappy with the outcome, help them figure out what their dominant strategy should have been. 

 Use game theory terminology.  Make sure that you have an adversarial situation with at least two parties. 

Leadership influence | Nursing homework help

 The influence of leadership can be far-reaching in practice and improving patient outcomes even when not in a formal role. Describe advocacy strategies that you can use as a leader to create positive change in your current workplace. In response to peers, describe a time when you provided leadership and the outcome. Was there anything that you would do differently? 

For katetutor only – group conflict and conflict resolution

In this assignment, you will conduct research using the Argosy University online library resources and the Internet to explore topics such as current events and issues in human services with a specific emphasis on group conflict.
Tasks:
In support of your research, in a minimum of 400 words, respond to the following points:

Describe a group conflict that you have been involved in recently, especially if it relates to the human services field.
Discuss the factors that led to the group conflict. Focus on typical group behaviors such as groupthink, social facilitation, social inhibition, and social loafing.
Describe whether the conflict was relational or task based. Why?
Explain the techniques that were used to resolve the conflict.

Revised data warehouse | Computer Science homework help

 1- Data mining Intermediate tutorial lessons (1-5).
https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc879271.aspx
 
I need 2 page  a write-up of your thoughts on the tutorial….content covered, how well covered, what you learned, problems encountered, on each lesson
 
with screenshot of each lesson at SQL server 2012 ( you need to apply each steps in tutorial )*
 
*the screenshot should have full view of the desktop screen with time and date.
 
 

Cult and religion | English homework help

 
Cults roughly refers to a cohesive social group devoted to beliefs or practices that the surrounding culture considers outside the mainstream, with a notably positive or negative popular perception. Many cults are destructive or suicidal though others, whilst being controversial, do not commit extreme acts. How can you measure the validity of a cult?
Measurement of religiousness. Science can be proven repeatedly but can religion? How can you measure a religion? Use at least two sources in writing this assignment. Address issues that a cult would face such as reliability, face validity, predictive validity, construct validity, history, origin, and the myth behind the religion. Choose two cults and compare and contrast the similarities and differences that make them unique (2 pages). 

Psy 357 week 5 assignment 1: adolescent egocentrism case studies

Reflect on two of Elkind’s manifestations of adolescent egocentrism:

The imaginary audience
The personal fable

Next, create two case studies (250-500 words each), each illustrating one of these.
 
Case studies can be personal experiences or made up for the purpose of illustration.
 
Examples should be unique, and should differ from examples used in Lecture 5 or the Module 5 textbook readings.
 
 
APA format is not required, but solid academic writing is expected.

Developing a performance improvement plan

Respond to the following bullets in a 3- to 5, which will include 2 Appendices. 

Begin with an introduction and then provide a summary of the case study.

Prepare a needs assessment to analyze both employees’ skill levels identified in the scenario. 

Based on the needs assessment, prepare an analysis of what should have happened, and what actually did happen, in the scenario. 

Based on the needs assessment, evaluate the appropriateness among possible choices of action (strategies), including discipline, development, improvement, or termination for the two employees. 

As a Human Resources professional, create a performance improvement plan for each employee that outlines the following: 

Expected behaviors;
Metrics for improvement;
Required action steps;
Consequences for not meeting the plan’s expected outcomes; 
Their manager’s role.

Prepare instructions for the manager on how to conduct a meeting with each employee about improvements and consequences.

Satisfaction Targets Discussion

Please make sure that answer initial post with 250 or more word count in apa format. Make sure no response is plagiarized. The initial questions are in bold and the response to students will follow.external scholarly sources required: 3Word count requirement for initial discussion board post: 250Word count requirement for each response to classmate: 100Of the two types of customer expectations, adequate performance expectations fluctuates the most.Student 1 Shoap, Shoshonna, Customers have expectations that can cover a broad range of subsets. Customers have expectations on how to be treated in good and bad situations. Customers expect to have a product or service that lives up to its claims. Customers expect a company to back the product in the future. Needs can be met in levels of effectiveness that produce superior, mediocre, or sub-par satisfaction for the customer (Ferrell & Hartline, 2014). When a customer is delighted in a product’s efficiency, then the baseline requirement is higher. A product could make good on its performance without exceeding or falling below, allowing a product to operate in a foundational level of satisfaction. Sometimes a product fails to meet needs and a customer is unhappy with the product and company. Companies have to dance a fine line of meeting needs, keeping customers, happy, and staying on track financially.Companies need to address satisfaction with a thorough strategy that identifies customer expectations on product and company performance. By studying customers’ past experiences, tracking current expectations, and communicating with the customers, a company can help formulate the customer adequate expectation baseline (Ofir & Simonson, 2007). Regardless if a customer is delighted, satisfied, or dissatisfied, all three include a baseline of the adequate acceptable levels of product performance. If a company wants to minimize the risk of losing a customer, they need to have a firm understanding of what is needed to keep the product at acceptable performance levels. Delight levels of need fulfillment have the highest level of adequate performance requirements. Performance levels are a huge factor in the very basic core product values. I would correlate the high levels of adequate performance to a more elite, highly customizable commodity. BMW is a car company that is known for expensive, luxurious cars that serve a more demanding clientele. All the cars have many base features that are present regardless of the level of the car in the product line. Customers that buy cars have a very high level of adequate expectations. The cars continue to have a great deal of prestige and status attached to the name. BMW customers will not buy a car if it does not meet all of their expectations. The BMW company has to stay engaged with its customers to ensure that the baseline is met. Customers are spending a great deal of money on even the basic models and therefore demand the value to match the investment. The two biggest components of customer satisfaction, expectations and purchasing experience, are found through active customer orientation and engagement (Bendaraviciene & Vilkyte, 2019). BMW needs to have a focus on strong customer bonds through the entire car buying process and long-term service to each individual customer. The high base levels of adequate expectations mean the company has to stay engaged with the customers. One strategy the company can utilize is talking to customers about previous purchases. If the company can learn what was liked and disliked about past cars, they can improve the product. Another way the company can gather information is to simply ask the customers what they want. The company can then incorporate reasonable and desired expectations into the product. The company can maintain and uphold industry standards so customers can have confidence in continued product quality. The high monetary investment of the customer could be reduced in perceived cost if the company fostered customer-based communities and clubs to add experience-based values. If customers feel emotionally cared for and connected to a product, they are more likely to remain satisfied. Expensive and prestigious products often have high product standards. A company can help preserve the baseline if they continue to engage with the customers and continually seek stable quality standards. Student 2 Edwards, Kendria Customer satisfaction can be looked at in two ways it can be defined as the degree to which a product meets or exceeds the expectations of the customer about that product (Ferrell & Hartline, 2014). When it comes to customer satisfaction you have an upper end of expectations which is desired and mostly want the customer wants then you have the lower end as adequate performance which is what customers are willing to accept (Ferrell & Hartline, 2014). Product expectations are often referred to predictions about how good the product performance will be (Monga & Houston, 2005). I get an hour lunch break and depending on the time of the day I go most places are crowded with others out on their lunch break. I might decide on place nearby like Wendy’s because of the convenience of it and the price however I know the service might be horrible and the food is just ok. My expectations are already set because of the levels of performance I got in my past, I am not looking for anything to be different (Johnson, Anderson & Fornell, 1995). But because of the convenience I stated earlier I go back. Sometimes I go it is as expected and other times it is worse. Those times I make sure to fill out the surveys are called the corporate number. Wendy’s as an organization can take the surveys and the complaints they get and plan a training workshop to help on things we as customers are not satisfied with. We know its fast food, but I still expect my food to be fresh and the service to be pleasant.

Major paper #2 | English homework help

Major Paper #2–The Personal Narrative Essay
We will be working on the Personal Narrative essay for the next three units.  The Personal Narrative will be due at the end of Unit #7.
A narrative is simply a story.  A personal narrative is a true story, focusing largely on the writer’s own life.
For Essay #2, the Personal Narrative, you will be writing a short essay (at least 3-4 pages in length) about a significant event in your own life.  This event need not –and probably should not–be inherently, overly dramatic.  Sometimes the most influential moments in our lives are smaller moments, events that we may not recognize as influential until years after the experience.  In the personal narrative essay, you will want to tell the story as accurately as you can—search your deep memory—and tell the story from your own perspective.  You will also want to exercise your selectivity as a writer, choosing to summarize background information/exposition, and really dramatize important scenes for the reader. 
During the course of this unit, you will want to read the examples of the Personal Narrative in Chapter 2.  You will want to start brainstorming ideas for your own personal narrative, and–by the end of Unit 5–you will want to have selected a significant event that you wish to focus on in this essay.
Here is one sample personal narrative:
Kyle Terry
“Cops”
            Even as a law breaking mischievous youth I had always looked up to Police Officers in my neighborhood. I even looked up to them when they would chase my friends and I when we snuck out at night and kicked sprinkler heads off, or got caught drinking underage. I loved to watch the show “Cops” and always pictured myself in the situations being portrayed on television. In my youth I did a lot of things that most people would look down on and police departments may shun you for, but that didn’t stop me from aspiring to join their ranks. 
            After serving in the military for over five years and attaining the rank of SGT (P), I was sent orders for recruiting. This was not the path I wanted my career to go down, so I opted to decline the orders. Once I had done this I was faced with a decision, what should I do now? I decided I would try to get hired at a local police department. At the time I was stationed in Manhattan, KS and had to choose between Manhattan, Salina, and Topeka. Topeka and Manhattan were testing on the same days and as fate would have it I decided to give Manhattan a try.
            Having no navigational skills in the city I was first challenged in finding the testing sight for the physical agility test. The site was located at the RCPD range, which was off of Pillsbury Drive, near Pillsbury Crossing. When I arrived I was shocked to see that I would be up against forty some odd people fighting for five or six slots. Once I got out of my truck and started talking to other hopeful applicants I became worried. What was I going to do if I didn’t get hired I asked myself. I felt as though I was under qualified after finding out that 60%- 70% of the applicants had degrees in Criminal Justice. I thought for sure that college would be a major hiring point. I had come this far though and had no reason to doubt my ability to prove myself on an obstacle course.
            The air was thin and cold on this particular day, making just breathing a chore. Gazing out at the course the towers were tall and a long climb, the walls were high with steep drops to the other side. Tires lined the courses isles to test your agility running through them, and at the end of the obstacle course there was a 170 pound dummy that you had to drag to a safe zone.  I felt confident since I was still in the Army and was in the best cardiovascular condition in my life. The lieutenant introduced himself to the crowd and began explaining the course, at the end of his explanation and demonstration he asked for volunteers to go first. In my mind I thought it would be good to volunteer, but I had learned early on in the Army not to volunteer for anything. I held my ground and stayed back to gauge the motivated people stepping to the front. I felt as if watching them would give me an edge. I watched several individuals run through the course until it was finally my turn.
            Once I stepped up to the starting line my adrenaline was pumping full blast, I felt unstoppable at that point. I had heard the fastest time was 2:09 through the course on this day and I was determined to beat it. I took off up the steep flight of stairs and down the other side simulating a chase. I felt like a wild animal closing on my prey as I hopped the fence and dropped to the other side. Next I ran through a make shift neighborhood setting and to a high wall I had to climb. Once at the top I ran down the steps and around the turnaround point. It was then that I realized how fast I was moving, I was flying through the course and hurting badly inside. I told myself that it was mind over matter and to suck it up for another 30 seconds. I ran to the shooting simulation and picked the bad guy out of the stand up targets, ran to the dummy drag and drug the 170 pounds 20 yards like a dog carries a flea on a daily basis.
            Once I was at the end of the line I heard the scorer yell “2:03.” I had done it. At that point I felt as if the job were in the bag. My score got beat by a fraction of a second later in the day, but I was still proud that I was able to overcome the pain to get to the finish line. After several vocabulary tests, spelling tests, writing tests, and a few oral review boards I was hired. I lived my childhood dream of becoming a Police Officer for three years. It was a thankless job in many ways, but it was also gratifying at times. I have since moved to San Antonio and changed professions, but often reflect on some of the experiences I had.  I know I wouldn’t have changed it for the world.

Nurs 6665 final exam questions and answers 2023-2024( complete

Question 1 The Confusion Assessment Methods Instrument (CAMI) is a standardized assessment tool for which of the following disorders? A . Dementia B . Delirium C . Pick’s disease D . A and C Question 2 Which of the following is a common sensory deficit of conversion disorder? Check all that apply. A . Blindness B . Tunnel vision C . Blindness D . Deafness Question 3 Delirium is an example of which type of clinical problem in psychosomatic medicine? A . Psychiatric symptoms secondary to a medical condition B . Psychiatric symptoms as a reaction to a medical condition of treatment C . Psychiatric complications of medical conditions and treatment D . Medical complications of psychiatric conditions or treatment Question 4 All the following medications are used in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease dementia/psychosis EXCEPT for A . Nuplazid B . Rivastigmi ne C . Pimavanser in D . Memantine Question 5 Indicators of imitative dissociative identity disorder include which of the following symptoms? A . Symptom exaggeration B . Confusion and shame related to symptoms C . Use of symptoms to excuse antisocial behaviors D . A and C only Question 6 Which of the following can lower a person’s resistance to control impulses? A . Fatigue B . Incessant stimulation C . Psychic trauma D . All of the above Question 7 Schizophrenia in a patient with end-stage renal disease is an example of which type of clinical problem in psychosomatic medicine? A . Co-occurring medical and psychiatric conditions B . Psychiatric symptoms secondary to a medical condition C . Psychiatric symptoms as a reaction to a medical condition D . Psychiatric complications of medical conditions and treatments Question 8 An acute onset, short-term confusion, with changes in cognition and level of awareness due to a physiological cause is known as which of the following? A . Delirium B . Dementia C . Psychosis D . Traumatic brain injury Question 9 A patient expresses feelings of unreality or of being detached from their environment, describing the perception of the outside world as unreal, dreamlike, and visually distorted. The ARNP recognizes this as which of the following? A . Derealization B . Depersonalization C . Generalized amnesia D . Dissociative identity disorder Question 10 A patient presents with persistent feelings of detachment from one’s self, like watching one’s self in a movie. The ARNP recognizes this as which of the following? A . Derealization B . Depersonalization C . Generalized amnesia D Dissociative identity . disorder Question 11 Which of the following is recommended in the treatment of pyromania? A . Psychoanalysis B . Cognitive therapy C . Supervision of patient to prevent a repeated episode of fire setting D . All the above Question 12 Which of the following biological factors have been associated with kleptomania? Check all that apply. A . Brain diseases B . Cortical atrophy C . Mental retardation D . Enlarged lateral ventricles Question 13 A neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by impairment confined to a specific area of academic achievement (i.e., reading, writing, arithmetic, spelling) without deficits in intellectual and adaptive behaviors is A . Intellectual disability B . Communication disorder C . Specific learning disorder D . Autism spectrum disorder Question 14 Which of the following approaches/treatments are recommended in working with patients with a conversion disorder? A . After a very thorough evaluation to r/o any medical cause, tell the patient that the symptoms are imaginary. B . Recommend psychotherapy to focus on issues of stress and coping. C . Recommend psychoanalysis to explore intrapsychic conflicts. D . B and C only Question 15 Experiences of depersonalization and derealization are common in which of the following patients? A . Patients with seizures B . Patients with migraines C . Patients who use marijuana D . All of the above Question 16 Under hypnosis or during psychotherapy, a patient may recover a memory of a painful experience that is etiologically significant. This is known as which of the following? A . False memory syndrome B . Recalled memory syndrome C . Dissociative trance disorder D . Recovered identity disorder Question 17 Which of the following is recommended as a first line therapy for a patient with dementia and behavioral disturbance? A Valproic acid . (Depakote) B . Risperdal C . Haloperidol D . None of the above Question 18 According to the DSM-5, delirium is specified as acute or persistent. Which of the following time frames is consistent with acute delirium specification? A . A few hours or days B . Three weeks or less C . One month or less D . Less than 3 months Question 19 Which of the following is true about impulses? Check all that apply. A . Impulses are acted upon with the expectation of receiving pleasure B . Impulses are usually ego-dystonic. C . Impulsive behaviors are characterized by their repetitive nature. D . The repeated acting out of impulses leads to psychological impairment. Question 20 MRI findings in patients with intermittent explosive disorder may reveal changes to which area of the brain that is associated with loss of impulse control? A . Cerebellum B . Prefrontal cortex C Temporal lobe . D . Parietal lobe Question 21 Patients with kleptomania have a high lifetime comorbidity of which of the following disorders? A . Mood disorders B . Schizophrenia C . Dissociative disorders D . All of the above Question 22 The epidemiology related to kleptomania includes which of the following? A . Kleptomania is more prevalent in males than females. B . Kleptomania is estimated to be about 10 percent in the general population. C . Kleptomania is reported to occur in fewer than 5 percent of identified shoplifters. D . All of the above Question 23 An increase in depersonalization is seen with the depletion of which of the following? A . GABA B . Serotonin C . L-tryptophan D . Norepinephri ne Question 24 Depression secondary to interferon treatments represents which of the following clinical problems in psychosomatic medicine? A . Psychiatric complications of medical conditions and treatments. B . Psychiatric symptoms secondary to a medical condition. C . Psychological factors precipitating medical symptoms. D . Psychiatric symptoms as a reaction to medical condition or treatments. Question 25 The ARNP is meeting with a person who reports a fascination with fire, along with recurrent deliberate and purposeful setting of fires. The ARNP realizes that these behaviors are consistent with which of the following disorders? A . Pyromania B . Obsessive-compulsive disorder C . Intermittent explosive disorder D . Pyrophobia Question 26 Which of the following is not consistent with what is known about depersonalization and derealization? A . They are the third most commonly reported psychiatric symptom. B . Derealization is two to four times more often in men than in women. C . One survey found a one-year prevalence of 19 percent in the general population. D . Transient experiences of depersonalization and derealization are extremely common in normal and clinical populations. Question 27 Which of the following are included in the clinical features of anxiety illness disorder? Check all that apply. A . Persons maintain they have a particular disease or as time progresses their belief may transfer to another disease. B . Lab results, lack of progression of the disease, and appropriate reassurances from the provider are helpful treatments for the person with the disease. C . Preoccupation with illness may or may not interfere with their interaction with family, friends, and co-workers. D . They are often addicted to internet search about their feared illness, inferring the worst from the information. Question 28 The ARNP in working with a parent of a 6-month-old would offer which of the following in anticipatory guidance? A . Give baby much attention. B . Attune to baby’s needs for hunger, fatigue, diaper change. C . Provide supervised time for crawling, sitting, and rolling. D . All the above Question 29 The symptom of giving approximate answers is known as which of the following? A . Alogia B . Paralogi a C . Analogi a D . Symlogi a Question 30 Identifying developmental milestones is an important skill set for ARNPs for which of the following reasons? A . Often developmental milestones go unrecognized until a child is much older. B . Knowing when a significant variation in development has occurred improves diagnostic accuracy. C The sooner a significant developmental impairment is identified and addressed, the . better the long-term outcomes could be for patients. D . All of the above. Question 31 Which of the following can cause delirium? Check all that apply. A . Polypharmacy B . Sleep deprivation C . Admission/transfer/discharge from a healthcare facility D . None of the above Question 32 A patient who has been raped, presents with the inability to recall important personal information and any information about the rape, does recall events prior and since. There does not appear to be any physiological reason for this. This presentation is consistent with which of the following diagnoses? A . Dissociative amnesia B . Dissociative amnesia with dissociative fugue C . Localized dissociative amnesia D . Generalized dissociative amnesia Question 33 A term use to describe a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by impairments in reciprocal social communication and a tendency to engage in repetitive stereotyped patterns of behaviors, interests and activities is A . Intellectual disability B . Specific learning disorder C . Autism spectrum disorder (ASD) D . Attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) Question 34 Acute withdrawal from alcohol represents which type of clinical problem in psychosomatic medicine? A . Medical complications of psychiatric conditions or treatments B . Psychiatric complications of medical conditions and treatments C . Psychiatric symptoms as a reaction to medical treatments. D . Co-occurring medical and psychiatric conditions. Question 35 A dissociative disorder described as an identity disturbance due to prolonged and intense coercive persuasion is known as which of the following? A . Brainwashing B . Ganser syndrome C . Imitative dissociation identity disorder D . Factitious dissociative identity disorder Question 36 Discrete episodes of losing control of aggressive impulses grossly out of proportion to any stressors, which can result in serious assault tor destruction of property are symptoms consistent with which of the following disorders? A . Conduct disorder B . Anti-social personality disorder C . Borderline personality disorder D . Intermittent explosive disord Question 37 Epidemiology data suggests which of the following with respect to illness anxiety disorder? A . Illness anxiety disorder is more common in men than in women. B . Illness anxiety disorder is seen more frequently in persons with higher education. C . Surveys indicate that up to 15 percent of the general population worry about becoming sick and incapacitated as a result. D . Illness anxiety disorder is more common among caucasians than among other races. Question 38 Which of the following treatments is NOT recommended in treating Dissociative Identity Disorder? A . Cognitive Therapy B . Hypnosis C . Antidepressants D . Group Psychotherapy Question 39 A person reveals to the ARNP that they steal to get the things they want and cannot afford. The person says they just can’t help themselves, because they have kleptomania. The ARNP realizes the following: A . This presentation is consistent with kleptomania. B . This presentation is not consistent with kleptomania because a person with kleptomania does not realize they have kleptomania. C . The person likely does not have kleptomania because a person with kleptomania is more concerned with the act of stealing rather than the obtaining the object which has been stolen. D . The presentation is consistent with kleptomania because the person is stealing things they need. Question 40 A subcortical dementia with parenchymal abnormalities which can be visualized on MRI is known as which of the following? A . HIV dementia B Kluver-Bucy syndrome . C . Alzheimer’s type dementia D . Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease Question 41 Predisposing factors for delirium include which of the following? Check all that apply. A . Dementia B . History of falls C . Age 65 and olde D . Sensory impairment Question 42 Which of the following diagnostic instruments for Autism Spectrum Disorder is recommended for universal clinical practice? A . Autism Diagnostic Interview -Revised (ADI – R) B . Diagnostic Interview for Social and Communication Disorder (DISCO) C . Development, Dimensional and Diagnostic Interview D . None of the above Question 43 A capacity evaluation prior to an organ transplantation is an example of which of the following clinical problems in psychosomatic medicine? A . Psychiatric symptoms secondary to a medical condition B . Medical complications of psychiatric treatments C . Psychological factors precipitating medical conditions D Psychiatric/psychosocial assessment . Question 44 A temporary marked alteration in the state of consciousness or by the customary sense of personal identity without the replacement by an alternate sense of identity is known as which of the following? A . Ganser Syndrome B . Dissociative Trance Disorder C . Dissociative Identity Disorder D . Factitious Dissociative Identity Disorder Question 45 Which of the following is consistent with current literature about the relationship between obstetrical complications and Autism Spectrum Disorders (ASD)? A . Research is unclear whether obstetric complications are a true risk factor for ASD. B . Research proves there is a negative correlation between obstetrical complications and ASD. C . Research proves there is a positive correlation between obstetrical complications and ASD. D . Research strongly supports a positive relationship between obstetric complications and ASD. Question 46 A major neurocognitive disorder with severe impairment in memory, judgment, orientation, and cognition is known as which of the following? A . Deliriu m B . Dement ia C . Psychos is D . Amnesi a Question 47 Difficulty with immediate memory is attributed to impairment in which of the following regions of the brain? Select all that apply. A . Broca B . Wernick e C . Occipita l D . Tempor al Question 48 Which of the following would not be included in the treatment plan for a patient with illness anxiety disorder? A . Behavioral therapy B . Group psychotherapy C . Insight oriented psychotherapy D . Exploratory invasive procedures to obtain diagnosis Question 49 Which of the following would demonstrate the normal achievement of gross motor developmental milestone for a 6-month-old? A . Pulls to stand B . Transfers items hand to hand C . Briefly sits alone: pivots in prone D . Feeds self crackers; stares at new faces. Question 50 A process by which repressed material is brought back to consciousness and the person relives the repressed material accompanied ty the appropriate affective response. A Abulia . B . Abreactio n C . Adynamia D . Alexithym ia Question 51 The term psychosomatic literally refers to which of the following? A . Imaginary illness B . Psychiatric illness C . How the mind effects the body D . How the body effects the mind Question 52 Which of the following is consistent with normal range gross motor developmental milestones for a 4 year old? A . Walks down stairs, jumps backwards B . Balances on one foot for 4 seconds, can broad jump 1 foot C . Writes part of name; copies a square. D . Eats independently, unbuttons items Question 53 Which of the following speech and language skills are consistent with normal developmental milestones of a 3-year-old? A . Uses three-word sentences; names body parts. B . Uses two-word sentences; understands me and you C . Follows three-step request; tells stories D . Responds to “why?”; likes rhyming words Question 54 Which the following medications is used to treat irritability in autism? A . fluoxetine B . aripiprazo le C . alprazola m D . guanfacin e Question 55 A congenital neurodevelopmental disorder primarily occurring in females, characterized by specific deficits following a period of normal function growth and development is A . PANDAS B . Rett syndrome C . Reye’s syndrome D . Kluver-Bucy syndrome Question 56 Which of the following are included in the five different milestone skill areas that should be evaluated? A . Social/emotional skills B . Gross/fine motor skills C . Speech and language skills D . All the above Question 57 Recognizable skills or abilities that have an expected range and order of appearance such as a child taking his first step around the time of his first birthday is known as which of the following? A . Life skills B . Motor development C . Developmental history D . Developmental milestones Question 58 A condition characterized by the person giving approximate answers, with clouding of consciousness, frequently accompanied by hallucinations or other dissociative, somatoform or conversion symptoms is A . Ganser Syndrome B . Schizophrenia C . Dissociative trance disorder D . Dissociative identity disorder Question 59 Somatoform disorders represent which type of clinical problem in psychosomatic Medicine? A . Co-occurring medical and psychiatric conditions. B . Psychiatric complications of medical conditions and treatments. C . Psychiatric symptoms secondary to a medical condition. D . Psychological factors precipitating medical symptoms. Question 60 Which is NOT consistent with what is known about Ganser syndrome? A . Three of Ganser’s first four cases were convicts. B . Cases have been reported in a variety of cultures. C . Women outnumber men by approximately 2 to 1. D . It is considered by some to be an indicator of potential malingering. Question 61 The second-most common type of dementia caused by cardiovascular and cerebrovascular disease with progressive cognitive decline in stepwise fashion is known as which of the following? A . Pick’s disease B . HIV dementia C . Vascular dementia D . Lewy-body dementia Question 62 Deficits in attention and the ability to complete multi-step commands are associated with impairment in which of the following regions of the brain? A . Frontal B . Prefrontal C . Cingulate gyrus D . All the above Question 63 A person erroneously believes they sustained an emotional or physical trauma in early life is known as which of the following? A . Ganser syndrome B . False memory syndrome C . Factitious dissociative identity disorder D . Imitative dissociative identity disorder Question 64 Persons who continually use the internet to play games to the extent that it interferes with social relations and work performance are exhibiting symptoms most specifically consistent with which of the following conditions? A . Obsessive gaming disorder B . Internet gaming disorder C . Internet use D . Internet abuse Question 65 A new diagnosis in the DSM-5 characterized by persons preoccupied with being sick or developing a disease of some kind is known as which of the following? A . Conversion disorder B . Illness anxiety disorder C . Somatic symptom disorder D . Functional neurological symptom disorder Question 66 A subcortical dementia characterized by motor abnormalities including psychomotor slowing, choreoathetoid movements, executive dysfunction complicated by impaired language, memory, and insight later in the disease process is A . Vascular dementia B . Huntington’s disease C . Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D . Alzheimer’s type dementia Question 67 Which of the following is a common visceral symptom of conversion disorder? A . Seizures B . Diarrhea C . Paralysis D . Mid-line anesthesia Question 68 The ARNP is working with the family of a patient with Alzheimer’s Disease who keeps stating the family is plotting against her, trying to have her “snuffed out.” The family is distraught because they state they are doing their best to make sure their family member is safe. The ARNP explains which of the following in educating the patient about the patient’s A . The patient is hallucinating. An estimated 20–30 percent of patient with dementia have hallucinations. B . The patient is delusional. An estimated 30–40 percent of patients with dementia have delusions. C . The patient likely has valid concerns and adult protective services needs to be called. D . Disturbance in perception is common in patients with Alzheimer’s Disease and patient needs to be hospitalized immediately. Question 69 Which of the following questions would be important when differentiating pyromania from schizophrenia? A . Was the fire set in response to a delusion or hallucination? B . Was the fire set deliberately, not a failure to resist an impulse? C . Was the fire set as an act of sabotage? D . Was the fire set with a failure to appreciate the consequences of the act? Question 70 The ARNP notices that a patient with a conversion disorder unable to walk has an inappropriately cavalier attitude toward what seems to be a major impairment and recognizes this an associated psychological symptom known as which of the following? A . Identification B . Primary gain C . Secondary gain D . La belle indifference Question 71 The ARNP recognizes which of the following when the 2-month-old opens her mouth when she sees a bottle. A . The 2-month-old must be quite advanced as this is a visual motor skill normally seen in a 4 month old. B . The 2-month-old is demonstrating a normal developmental adaptive skill. C . The 2-month-old is demonstrating a normal developmental visual motor skill. D . The 2-month-old is demonstrating an advanced developmental gross motor skill. Question 72 Neuropsychiatric testing is defined as which of the following? A . A comprehensive mental status exam B . A neurological evaluation of brain function C . Standardized quantitative reproducible evaluation of a patient’s cognitive abilities. D . A non-invasive test of brain function which analyzes electrical rhythms in the brain Question 73 Deficits in language including naming, repetition, reading and comprehension, and writing is NOT associated with impairment in which of the following regions of the brain? A Broca . B . Wernicke C . Right parietal D . Left temporal Question 74 A sudden unexpected purposeful travel away from home with inability to recall all of one’s past accompanied by confusion about personal identity not due to direct effects of a substance or a general medical condition which causes clinically significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning is most specifically known as which of the following? A . Dissociative fugue B . Dissociative amnesia C . Posttraumatic amnesia D . Systematized amnesia Question 75 Visual hallucinations are associated with impairment in which of the following regions of the brain? A . Occipital B . Temporal C . Left parietal D . Frontal, prefrontal Question 76 The principal theoretician to bring psyche and soma together was which of the following? A . Sigmund Freud B Anna Freud . C . Karl Abraham D . Georg Groddeck Question 77 Which of the following medications are FDA-approved medications for the treatment of delirium? A . Donepezil B . Galantamine C . Rivastigmine D . None of the above Question 78 Anxiety related to chemotherapy is an example of which type of clinical problem in psychosomatic medicine? A . Psychological factors precipitating medical symptoms B . Psychiatric symptoms as a reaction to a medical condition or treatment C . Co-occurring medical and psychiatric conditions D . Psychiatric complications of medical conditions and treatments Question 79 A type of delirium characterized by cycling through psychomotor agitation and retardation, from apathy to hypervigilance is known as which of the following? A . Mixed delirium B . Bipolar delirium C . Hyperactive delirium D . A and B Question 80 A tension state that can exist without an action is known as which of the following? A . An obsession B . A compulsion C . An impulse D . Ego dystonic Question 81 Which of the following is true regarding how intermittent explosive disorder is differentiated from antisocial or borderline personality disorder? A . In personality disorders, the aggressiveness and impulsivity are mild. B . In personality disorders, the person is much less aware of the symptoms. C . In personality disorders, functioning is less likely to be affected. D . In personality disorders, aggressiveness and impulsivity is part of the person’s character and is present between outbursts. Question 82 A tension state that always has an action component is known as which of the following? A . An impulse B . An obsession C . A compulsion D . Acting out Question 83 A cognitive assessment should include which of the following? A . Baseline cognitive functioning B . Changes from baseline functioning C . Speed of onset of cognitive changes D . All of the above Question 84 The ARNP evaluates a 4-year-old who cannot balance on one foot for 3 seconds, cannot copy a circle and realizes which of the following? A . This is normal for a 4-year-old. B . This is a developmental red flag for a 4-year-old that should trigger a specialized assessment. C . This is a developmental red flag for a 5-year-old so do nothing at this point. D . This is a minor concern, the APRN advises to enroll the child in gymnastics for balance and an art class to learn to draw better. Question 85 Which of the following adaptive skills are consist with normal range developmental milestone of an 18-month-old? A . Bite, chews cookie; looks for fallen item B . Finger feeds items; takes off a hat. C . Gets onto a chair; removes garment D . Opens doorknobs; pulls off pants. Question 86 A disorder characterized by the presence of two or more distinct identities which differ from each other in that each presents as having its own pattern of perceiving, relating to, and thinking about the environment and self. A . Dissociative Identity Disorder B . Imitative Dissociative Identity Disorder C . Factitious Dissociative Identity Disorder D . Malingered Dissociative Identity Disorder Question 87 Interest in fires and deliberate setting of fires for financial gain is known as which of the following? A . Arson B . Pyromania C . Intermittent explosive disorder D . Impulse control disorder Question 88 Which of the following conversion disorder symptoms are associated with a good prognosis? A . Tremors and aphonia B . Tremors and seizures C . Paralysis and seizures D . Paralysis and blindness Question 89 A type of delirium characterized by psychomotor retardation and apathy is known as which of the following? A . Mixed delirium B . Medical delirium C . Hypoactive delirium D . Hyperactive delirium Question 90 Which of the following symptoms assist in differentiating a seizure from a pseudoseizure? A . Tongue biting is typically not present in a pseudoseizure B . Urinary incontinence is typically not present in a pseudoseizure C . Injuries from falling are typically not present in a pseudoseizure D . All the above Question 91 Which of the following questions are recommended to assess sexual identity in a male adolescent? A . Do you have or have you had a girlfriend? B . Do you have or have you had a boyfriend? C . Do you have, or have you had romantic feelings toward anyone? D . A and C only Question 92 Which of the following demographics are consistent with autism spectrum disorder (ASD) A . Female to male ratio (4:1) B . Onset of symptoms by age 3 C . Affects 1 in 100 children D . All the above Question 93 The diagnosis formerly known as multiple personality disorder is now known as which of the following? A . Dissociative fugue B . Dissociative identity disorder C . Factitious dissociative identity disorder D . None of the above Question 94 Which of the following is NOT consistent with what is known about intermittent explosive disorder across the lifespan? A . Intermittent explosive disorder may appear at any stage of life. B . Intermittent explosive disorder usually appears between late adolescence and early adulthood. C . Intermittent explosive disorder typically increases in severity with the onset of middle age. D . The onset of intermittent explosive disorder may be acute or insidious Question 95 Functional neurological symptoms disorder is also known as which of the following? A . Conversion disorder B . Somatization disorder C . Factitious disorder D . A and C Question 96 Which of the following would be a developmental trigger for a 3-year-old? Check all that apply. A . Cannot balance on one foot for 3 seconds, cannot copy a circle B . Lack of imaginative plan; cannot hypothesize an other’s thought C . Cannot use a three-word sentence; speech only 50% understandable D . Speech less than 75% understandable; cannot identify self or details in pictures Question 97 Which of the following questions would be important when differentiating pyromania from conduct disorder or antisocial personality disorder? Check all that apply. A . Was the fire set in response to a delusion or hallucination? B . Was the fire set deliberately, not a failure to resist an impulse? C . Was the fire set as an act of sabotage? D . Was the fire set with a failure to appreciate the consequences of the act? Question 98 The therapeutic approach that has the best chance of success for the person with intermittent explosive disorder is which of the following? A . Psychotherapy only B . Psychopharmacology only C . A combined psychotherapy/psychopharmacology approach D . Family therapy only Question 99 Which of the following are common disorders that must be differentiated from dissociative identity disorder? Check all that apply. A . Perimenstrual disorders B . Posttraumatic stress disorder C . Obsessive-compulsive disorder D B and C only . Question 100 Which of the following is an example of a medical complication of psychiatric conditions or treatment? A . Dementia B . Neuroleptic Malignant syndrome C . Depression related to limb amputation D . Recurrence of depressive disorder in setting of cancer treatment