Why does Aristotle say that  phantasia is distinct from perception?

Option 1: Aristotle’s De Anima (“On the Soul”) 
Explore how Aristotle develops an understanding of phantasia (“imagination”) in De Anima, Book III, Part 3: 427b28 – 429a9 and noein (“thinking”) in De Anima, Book III, Part 4: 429a10 – 430a9. 
A reading guide on this text can be found here: 
Polansky, Ronald, M. Aristotle’s De Anima: A Critical Commentary. Cambridge University Press (2007). 
The text of Aristotle’s De Anima to read can be found here:
Aristotle, De Anima, Book III, Part 3 – 4
Answer the following questions on a separate document (Microsoft Word .docx),  exploring how Aristotle develops an understanding of phantasia (“imagination”) in part 3 and noein (“thinking”) in part 4 of De Anima.  

1. Why does Aristotle say that  phantasia is distinct from perception? (428a6ff.)  
2. Aristotle claims that “sensations are always true, imaginations are for the most part false” (a11-12) What does he mean and why is it important to state? 
3. How does Aristotle argue that imagination is distinct from belief? (428a19-b5). Can you identify the premises and conclusion? 
4. What positive relation does imagination have to perception? How is imagination related to motion? (428b10-17)  
   5. How is “thinking” (noein) like perceiving? (429a13-17)  
5. In what sense is intellect purely potential? (a20)  
6. How does intellect differ from perception in its being unaffected? (429a30-b5)  
7. Why does Aristotle say intellect is separable? (b5)  
8. What kind of knowledge is Aristotle talking about at 429b6-9?  
   10. How does the analogy of the writing tablet help explain the nature of intellect and its relation to its objects?